I think he’s saying that it is “moving money out of risky investments and putting the money into banks”, because banks aren’t safe investments.
I don’t know how I feel about that but you guys do know that the FDIC has begun to demand 3 years pre-payment on insurance premiums right? They in no way have enough cash on hand to cover a systemic failure, and it is the fiat-feds in charge anyhow.
Is it his reference to MZM as an inflationary indicator? MZM doesn’t include Federal Reserve credit which is a significant source of the monetary base…? Therefore, he is minimalizing the actual level of inflation.
So when you take your savings out of a risky asset and put it in a bank, somebody gives you the money for that asset. The economy on net doesn’t gain any money supply. The money had to come from somewhere so (assuming the Fed didn’t pay you for your asset) somebody used already existing money to exchange for your risky asset. Therefore the money data wouldn’t grow because I sold a risky asset and put that money in the bank. Is that about right?
I really enjoyed this whole thread. I would love more of the same, riddles of this sort.
The answer is obvious [after the fact] and enlightening.
Thx!
Oh, one lil thing. Say the asset was paid for in cash that was not in a bank, but under a matress or anywhere but a bank. So the magic of fractional reserve banking doesn’t apply to it. But once it’s put into a bank, Fractional reserve banking blows it up into ten times as much. Isn’t that a partial justification for Bernanke’s statement?
I guess, in this case, Bernanke’s statement is justified, although I think it’s quite clear he was talking about the more common scenario.
Several points, however, regarding transferring money from mattress to bank account:
The re-entry of the mattress money, prior to being multiplied by the fractional reserve system, is not inflation, since no new money has been created “out of thin air.”
The increase in MZM, even after accounting for the multiplier effect, only offsets the same DECREASE that occurred when the money originally went IN to the mattress.
Another point:
Notice how Bernanke, through the use of a metaphor (“taking money out of risky assets”) commits a “lie of omission”: He focuses on only one side of the transaction, while ignoring the other. This is the error Henry Hazlitt warned about in Economics In One Lesson.
Here’s another, easier one, from page 107:
Ron Paul: But how can you pursue this policy without addressing the subject that somebody’s losing their wealth because of a weaker dollar?
Ben Bernanke: If somebody has their wealth in dollars and they’re going to buy consumer goods in dollars - it’s a typical American - then the decline in the dollar, the only effect it has on their buying powers, it makes imported goods more expensive.
Imported goods are a HUGE amount of what Americans buy.
The way the dollar is devalued is not by some decree. After all the dollar and all currencies are subject to supply and demand like everything else. The dollar is devalued by printing more of it. [Jonathan Catalan’s latest post in Mises’ Daily taught me this].
So that devaluing the dollar= printing more dollars= inflation= price of EVERYTHING goes up.
I give up. Unless you meant that bernanke said only imports go up, when inreality everything goes up. But that’s my point 2 in the earlier thread.
It occurs to me that the “top ten economic fallacies” thread is a good riddle source. What is the rebuttal to those top ten fallacies. Work lies ahead for the energetic.
Bernanke suggests that the dollar’s declining value is only in terms of foreign currencies, without affecting domestic purchasing power. He tells this lie to avoid admitting the secret, unpleasant truth: that inflation steals wealth from those who earn it and transfers it to the Fed and government. The Fed can lend without limit, while the government can spend without limit. The slaves get to pay the price.
Here’s a video (8:17) I became aware of in another thread. Produced by/for the European Central Bank, it ostensibly teaches about “price stability” while covertly slipping in some pernicious, fallacious propaganda. The video:
Spot the fallacies, hidden assumptions, lies of omission, inconsistencies, etc. The idea is to perform a “differential diagnosis,” Austrian-style, i.e., to show how an Austrian evaluation explains what the official version fails to.
Note: I haven’t read the “more detailed teacher’s booklet,” but it could prove to be a gold mine of nonsense and hoodwinkery..