The Ancient Chimera of Universal, Absolute, and Objective Value

So the distinction regards not the sentiment itself but the object with which the sentiment is related? The same phenomenon (identically experienced, or similar ‘qualia’ to borrow the term) of disapprobation can be both a moral and a non-moral sentiment, depending on the object of its relation?

If this is the case (and I think you would agree) then it seems an arbitrary distinction. Useful in common discourse, but there is nothing ‘special’ about moral sentiment vs ‘other’ sentiment.

So?