How does the concept of property lead you to (what you consider to be) NAP? You need to explain that, instead of just saying that it does.
Let us take the following definition of property:
“To own a thing is to have the exclusive right to use that thing.”
We can rewrite this in a simpler form:
“One has the right to exclusive use of the things he owns.”
And from this, the NAP is simply the inverse:
“One who does not own a thing, does not have a right to use that thing.”
And if one wants to phrase this as a commandment:
“thou shalt not use a thing which thou dost not own.”
Aggression is “to use a thing which you do not own.”
Or, in other words, to violate property rights.
And there you have a derivation of the NAP from the concept of property.
But doing the inverse is impossible, one cannot derive the concept of property from the NAP, because one cannot even meaningfully state the NAP without already assuming the concept of property.
The fact that people’s brains are wired to think of {property} and {propertyholder} when things are coded into those contexts does not make your argument for you. The philosophical implications of that biological fact are that humans need a coherent, cogent, workable theory of property in order to use those biocircuits effectively. This is an epistemological starting point, not the slam dunk you thought it to be.
I have no idea what you’re talking about. All that I’m saying is that, if you want to idenfity the basic principles from which libertarian ethics can be derived, the property ethic is one of them, and the NAP is not. The NAP is not one of the basic principles, it is something derived from one of the basic principles. The basic principles concern (1) what property is, and (2) how people come to acquire property (and this divides into three principles: that of voluntary exchange, that of torts, and that of homesteading). Given those principles, the rest of libertarian ethics can be derived.
property is a separate axiom
Seperate from what? From the NAP? No, it is not. The NAP makes no sense without the concept of property. Suppose there is a world where everyone knows the NAP, but no one has any concept of property. The NAP is meaningless to them. Great, don’t aggress - but what’s aggression? They don’t know, because the definition of aggression rests on a concept of property.
just like there is a “Minarchist” who rejects NAP and substitutes it with his own principle derived from property axioms
I reject the NAP? How so?
I said the NAP presupposes the concept of property. Why would that mean I reject the NAP? Non sequitur.