Why A Priori and Not A Posteriori?

Miscellaneous General
1

Another thread piqued my curiosity. Why do many Austrians on this forum and even Mises tout a priori reasoning and not a posteriori reasoning? To clarify, as my moniker might suggest, I believe that all knowledge is gained through sense experience. Induction or deduction in the form of “a priori knowledge” must inevitably result from a posteriori conclusions as its basis.

I’m open to ulterior explanations; genuinely curious how an economic system can result from a priori assertions while negating empiricism.

2

Praxeology and Economic Science, by Hoppe, excerpt from Economics Science and the Austrian Method. This is quite a good read, and it should answer your questions thoroughly.

3

Thanks buddy.

4

Closing this as there’s a very similar topic open.