www.economagic.com shows m2 from 1990 at about 3.2 trillion and in 2009 at 9 trillion
for the same period it shows currency in circulation (cash i assume) to only have reached 1 trillion in 2009…only in the hundreds of billions up until current.
250 billion in cash in 1990 from 3.2 billion in m2 is right at 3 trillion in non-currency in circulation money.
1 trillion in 2009 deducted from 9 trillion in m2 leaves 8 trillion in non-currency in circulation money - some form of bank-credit i guess. unless the econmagic info is false.
currency in circulation quadrupled and non-currency in circulation credit forms tripled over nearly twenty years.
there probobly isnt much difference economically in making numbered pieces of paper cash and bank-credit forms these days - if that actually happens.
a couple of cents to make a 1 million dollar bill if they wanted.
i thought mises called it fiduciary media…not a claim on goods but a claim on a promise to pay money. and that seems differnet to me. the money good wasnt actually sitting somewhere to be redeemd…it was based on a promise of future but unrealized promises.
"The money supply has
increased by the precise amount of the credit—$80,000—expanded by the fractional reserve bank. One hundred percent reserve banking has been replaced by fractional reserves, the fraction
being $50,000 $130,000 or 5/13. Thus, fractional reserve banking is at one and the same time
fraudulent and inflationary;…"
“Put another way, a bank is always inherently bankrupt,”
" fractional reserve banking is at one and the same time fraudulent and inflationary; it generates an increase in the money supply by issuing fake warehouse receipts for money…" can a fake claim for money be a claim for money??
http://mises.org/Books/mysteryofbanking.pdf
is a promisory note a claim for money too and how does it differ from bank-credit/fiduciary media/,e tc?
does something negative occur within an economy (japans or otherwise) by issuing claims in excess of goods to be claimed?
“when prices are adjusted for inflation, Americans today spend '40% less on clothes, 20% less on food, more than 50% less on appliances, about 25% less on owning and maintaining a car’than they did during the early 1970s.” is this true?
http://blog.mises.org/archives/010741.asp
did the mises differ with the rothbard on the above issue?? is the above info false??