I don’t want to give ammunition to the Juan’s of this forum, but to the extent that a ‘moral statement’ is an expression of facts of preference, is ceases to be a moral statement.
Do you believe that the preferences that people ascribe to morality, such as empathy, generosity and filial devotion are distinct from ‘mere’ aesthetic preferences? Do you think that the ‘moral’ urge that wells within your stomach at the sight of the poor and downtrodden varies from the reaction you would get from dropping a vase or breaking your laptop in kind as well as degree?
Obviously the term itself is functional in the same way that the term ‘hand’ is functional while still being entirely collapsible into fundamental quantum elements (which is not very practical in everyday matters which occur at a high level of abstraction).
If this is indeed the case, then you are indeed a moral nihilist (which I take to mean rejecting moral realism). Not that it’s anything to be ashamed of 
AJ and Liberty Student, this question is for you as well.