Onar Åm wrote the following post at 10-20-2010 5:22 PM:
“Now, there is an analogy between renting and paying royalties for IP. BUT as we have discussed previously information doesn’t exist independently of the mind. The only way for a novel or a song to be instantiated is through the mental labor of another human being. So once a piece of intellectual property is released to the public people immediately start mixing their mental labor with it. Once it is in their head they’re stuck with it, they can’t escape it. Now, if IP is to last generation after generation, people would in effect become serfs. They would be eternal renters, and that obligation to rent would be passed on to their children. To avoid this, IP must expire after approximately a generation. This is especially true for patents since they have huge effect on everyone. Copyrights may last longer than patents because it takes longer for most books and songs to diffuse throughout society. You can live your whole life without ever having heard of Atlas Shrugged, but you’ll definitely have heard of electricity and cell phones.”
Onar,
Presumably under COPYRIGHT the piece of intellectual property is NOT released to the public, but rather sold to an individual on the condition that he/she does not permit any copy to be made of the work. I also note that he/she has paid (normally) an upfront sum for HIS copy of the work. Upon his death this copy would then presumably be inherited (or tossed in the garbage).
I can’t see how they could possibly "diffuse throughout society" provided the COPYRIGHT protection is complied with according to the letter of the law. (It could do so illegaly very fast, but that’s hardly an argument for limiting the time of COPYRIGHT.). The only way it could legally "diffuse throughout society" would be if everyone bought a copy (and let the copy pass on in inheritance). Would a situation where 6 billion copies be sold of “Atlas Shrugged” justify cancelling the author’s ownership?
You correctly point out that PATENTS are a much more damaging creature, and they certainly end up affecting everyone. As you also point out they are mostly sold on a licence basis to other producers, often an a unit produced basis. So when we go out to buy a cellphone or switch on the TV we’re benefiting from a huge number of inventions. Now those patented inventions packed into the cellphone naturally have the licence fees baked into the price, that is, it’s much more expensive than it would have been in the absence of PATENTS. (That’s the point of PATENTS.)
Now, what would happen if there was no time limitations to the patent, ie that it was perpetual. Well, presumably the cellphone would be even more expensive, however we’d still voluntarily decide to purchase the cellphone (or not). The only way PATENTS would legally become “diffused throughout society” would presumably be if everybody voluntarily bought a product that incorporates the PATENT in question. A perpetual PATENT would then, by increasing prices dramatically, presumably slow down the dreaded speed of “diffusion throughout society” which ends up making us serfs.
Hence the perpetual PATENT will undoubtedly save millions from the fate of becoming serfs, simply by putting lots of goods way outside what they would be able to afford. Although it doesn’t seem to me that anyone becomes serfs for by buying a $3,000 iPhone, nor by buying a $300 one instead of paying a mere $100 for it without ANY PATENTS, unless ofcourse you consider that one becomes a serf because one ends up paying a higher price for the product than you would without PATENTS.
If the argument for timelimitations is merely the higher price it would seem argue for the abolishment of the PATENT system altogether, not for imposing a timelimit. It is true that, in a sense, under the PATENT system you would become an eternal renter, but there is no shame renting another man’s property (if it truly is his legitimate property as I pointed out in the response to the false Serf Analogy). Time-limitations would then be more akin to a rent-control system, where the state always is trying to get the price of the rent “right”, however doesn’t rent-control by the State violate the owner’s property rights? (Now you got me into the stupid analogy game!)
I look forward to you pointing out where I misunderstood your position, as I undoubtedly must have since the development of your arguments either points to the abolishment of IP altogether or perpetual IP (to save us from serfdom)