I don’t believe I said that simply using new meanings implicitly per se is dishonest. I said that using them implicitly, while expecting one’s listeners/readers to be unaware of his different usage, is dishonest. Barring that, I think explicitly stating one’s unconventional definitions for words should certainly help (at least) mitigate any potential for misunderstanding between him and his listeners/readers.
Keep in mind that I’ve been consistently talking about non-fiction here. I don’t see how literature in the sense of art has any relevance. In any case, I think oftentimes there’s sufficient surrounding context for one to reasonably* infer an unconventional definition. People also often seem to assume that others already share their definitions for (most) words.
Can you explain what you mean by “for […] the cost of others”? If you’re talking about looking down on others, what is exactly taken from them by doing so?
Depending on the definition being used for ideology (oops!), one could argue that everything we talk about is a matter of ideology. Of course, that would mean the term “ideology” loses all distinctiveness. In any case, could you tell me what you mean by “ideology”? Because I’m honestly not sure at this point.
That’s up to you, of course. But why not?
So essentially you’re talking about the genetic fallacy and/or the association fallacy. Why not just say that?
On the other hand, if talking about e.g. fatness in a newly derogatory way might not lead to “people” making that association, then that means talking about it in such a way will not necessarily lead to “people” making that association.
Finally, if a person is called out on his use of “language politics” and is undeterred by it, what then?
Apparently most people either don’t see them as part of a centuries-old social movement, or they don’t find that centuries-old social movement to be all that prominent or noticeable. Do you think it could be anything else?
I fail to see how relying on default (i.e. conventional) definitions doesn’t get me or anyone else very far.
Can you explain what you mean by “effect” in the context of using words? I seem unable to infer whatever general principle you’re referring to (if any) from the apparent example you provided.
What do you mean by “all language is implicit”? And if it’s all implicit, then don’t “implicit” and “explicit” lose all distinctiveness?
- By “reasonably” I mean in accordance with that fundamental premise I mentioned earlier.