Wikipedia and ABCT

"In 1988 Gordon Tullock explained his disagreement with the theory.[7] His main point is that “if the process that Rothbard describes did occur, there would be many corporate bankruptcies and business people jumping out of the windows of office buildings, but there would be only minor transitional unemployment. In fact, measured GNP would be higher as a result.” This is because the Austrian theory implies fluctuations in investment, but not in the production decisions of firms. Nobel laureate Paul Krugman also made a similar argument when he stated that the theory implies that consumption would increase during downturns and cannot explain the empirical observation that spending in all sectors of the economy falls during a recession,[9].

Mainstream economists argue that the theory requires bankers and investors to exhibit a kind of irrationality – that they be regularly fooled into making unprofitable investments by temporarily low interest rates."

So first of all, I have to say that I don’t understand the argument by Gordon Tullock. I mean, why wouldn’t unemployment be high during the transition? Wouldn’t GNP fall?

As for the argument by Paul Krugman, why would consumption rise? I would see savings increase because of the higher uncertainty, thereby cutting spending, right?

ABCT doesn’t necessitate corporate bankruptcies, what it does necessitate is failed projects or at least investment projects which were not as profitable as expected. Furthermore, unexpected losses or lower than expected profits means that firms have to cut costs somehow. That generally means that firms try to cut wages, salaries, benefits, and the number of workers employed. Lower income means less money available to spend for the average Joe.

Is the thought that there should be higher spending due to a lower demand for money with inflation?

Gordon Tullock’s argument was expounded in his article “Why the Austrians Are Wrong About Depressions”. Before explaining his thesis, I’d like to copy and paste a few sentences I think are key to understanding Tullock’s argument.

First, Rothbard never explains why the inflation that is part of his theory cannot simply be continued or even accelerated.

Here, Tullock is referring to Rothbard’s Economic Depressions: Causes and Cures. Whether Rothbard left out the possible methods by which to postpone a recession is irrelevant, because any serious criticism of Austrian theory should have had more research than just Rothbard’s pamphlet. Austrians do claim that booms can be maintained by accelerating credit expansion.

Another gem:

As a personal item, I have lived through three hyperinflations and can testify that it is undeniably unpleasant, but not really a disaster.

I’m not sure what he is trying to say. Hyperinflation is OK because “it’s not that bad”? What economies recovered to the same health before hyperinflation? Argentina? Zimbabwe? Hungary?

In any case, the underlying thesis to Tullock’s criticism is:

The second nit has to do with Rothbard’s apparent belief that business people never learn.

This is, in fact, a recurring argument against the Austrian business cycle. The problem with the thesis is that entrepreneurship is something innate within the human spirit. Individuals are always looking for ways to increase wealth, and this requires investment. More often than not, investment will require an individual to borrow from the accumulated capital of another individual. If a central bank depreciates a bank to bank lending rate, or the rate at which banks can borrow from the Federal Reserve, and therefore increase the supply of credit on reserve in member banks it does not necessarily follow that the entrepreneur will be aware of this fact. An entrepreneur might, in any case, not be interested in waiting for the central bank to return to a market rate of interest, and I am certain that no entrepreneur knows what the real market rate of interest is.

But, these are just examples of how Gordon Tullock does not have a strong hold on Austrian theory, nor looks at the problem from a microeconomic perspective - that is, the perspective of the individual. Now, in continuation:

My major objection, putting it quite bluntly, is that if the process that Rothbard describes did occur, there would be many corporate bankruptcies and business people jumping out of the windows of office buildings, but there would be only minor transitional unemployment.

He elucidates his thesis near the end of the article:

Because of the size of the capital goods industries compared to the rest of the economy, however, the forcing down of prices in other industries made necessary by this unemployment would once again cause bankruptcies but not unemployment.

Gordon Tullock is absolutely correct, and in depressions which had little government intervention it took relatively little time for the labor markets to restructure. The most common Austrian example of this occurring is the depression of 1920. The massive unemployment of the Great Depression occurred because of Hoover’s labor laws, and the artificial inflexibility in wage rates, not because of the amount of malinvestment.

In general, Tullock’s critique should not be taken seriously. He shows an inadequate understanding of Austrian capital theory, even though he claims it’s Rothbard who is confused. He fails to distinguish between money and capital, and makes obvious the fact that he did not take the proper steps to completely understand what he was criticizing. On his comment on GNP, I am not sure how he comes to that conclusion. He does not talk about that later in the article.

Krugman’s argument is as follows:

Here’s the problem: As a matter of simple arithmetic, total spending in the economy is necessarily equal to total income (every sale is also a purchase, and vice versa). So if people decide to spend less on investment goods, doesn’t that mean that they must be deciding to spend more on consumption goods—implying that an investment slump should always be accompanied by a corresponding consumption boom?

Krugman, like Tullock, doesn’t really understand what he is criticizing. The Austrian theory argues that malinvestment occurred because individuals were not saving their capital. The investments were not products of increased savings, but of increases in the money supply which gave the illusion of higher savings. So, if during the boom we have a make believe consumption to savings ratio of 3:1 then it follows that if time preference does not change the ratio will remain the same after the malinvestments have been recognized as such. Usually, though, given an increase in uncertainty savings tends to increase, as individuals save to guard for the future.

In short, don’t focus too much on what Krugman and Tullock said. They should repay our attention by actually learning about what they are criticizing.

Wow, I like it. I guess I still have a lot to learn about this theory. Do you have any suggested reading?

The Keynesians say that recessions are caused by inadequate aggregate demand, but consumption levels peak right before the bust.

That’s the typical way of misunderstanding the problem. The problem isn’t deficient demand per se. The problem is that some markets experience deficient demand. The markets that experience deficient demand are the higher order goods markets. Greater spending doesn’t help these markets, since saving is necessary for these markets to exist. The average person doesn’t have enough pocket money to go buy a whole factory, capital machinery included.

I’ll expand on this post later.

What have you read so far? I would suggest to read L. Albert Hahn’s Common Sense Economics, as it delves into business cycle theory, although Hahn is not necessarily “completely Austrian”. Then, out of all the main Austrian treatises, I suggest Huerta de Soto’s Money, Bank Credit and Economic Cycles due to its clarity.

Yeah, some expansion on this would be nice. I don’t understand why you need savings for this.

Also, from the same article on ABCT, I don’t understand this paragraph:

“This new money then percolates downward from the business borrowers to the factors of production: to the landowners and capital owners who sold assets to the newly indebted entrepreneurs, and then to the other factors of production in wages, rent, and interest. Austrian economists conclude that, since time preferences have not changed, people will rush to reestablish the old proportions, and demand will shift back from the higher to the lower orders. In other words, depositors will tend to remove cash from the banking system and spend it (not save it), banks will then ask their borrowers for payment and interest rates and credit conditions will deteriorate.”

I’m not sure that that paragraph is entirely accurate. When credit expansion decelerates what occurs is that interest rates begin to increase, and entrepreneurs look to end investments because the cost of capital-goods increases. Then, they find that nobody had actually saved to purchase their goods or that the price of the good did not justify the costs of production, thus why it is termed malinvestment. I think it’s a problem with the language used:

Austrian economists conclude that, since time preferences have not changed, people will rush to reestablish the old proportions, and demand will shift back from the higher to the lower orders.

If time preference remains the same then there is no change in demand for consumer-goods. The only thing that occurs is a decrease in demand for capital-goods by part of the entrepreneurs who now realize that the cost of those capital-goods no longer justify investing them into long-term production programs. This is why the capital-goods industry is generally the one which takes the biggest and initial hit during recessions.

Bank failures are not caused necessarily by an increase in demand for consumer-goods. Bank failures can come as a result of a variety of factors. Banks which dealt heavily in extending credit, and did so with fractional reserves, will find themselves short of capital when the entrepreneurs they lent to return to make obvious the fact that they have to default, because their loans were squandered. Furthermore, given an increase in uncertainty there is usually an increase in demand for money, but this is not an increase in demand for consumption-goods; quite the opposite, an increase in demand for money is usually synonymous with an increase in savings. It just means that depositors no longer trust banks holding their money, and so instead they keep it under the mattress.

I know an excellent teacher. [:P]